Why The Masked Arab is Masked, Falsehood makes one Bashful, 7 vulgar reasons why TMA left Islam part-2 Quranic Contradictions?

Introduction:

In this article, we shall tackle the claims of creation and contradiction stated and perpetrated by the ex-Muslim favorite fraud scholar the masked Arab

I will dedicate this article only to the issue of contradtions, and the next one shall deal with his next allegation without the need to mix two separate claims in one article, I assume from this plan that this will be a 7 parts series reply, as I try and keep my articles as short and as simple as possible from now on, I’ve made several long and complex articles with many footnoes, this time I shall try and keep the theme of simplicity and cite few footnoes unless it’s needed to cite more, with that in mind let us proceed

Update: blogger has been once again messing up my Arabic text, instead of properly placing them from right to left some Arabic Texts were placed from left to right, this, however, shouldn't make many problems

Issue #1:

@5:50 the masked Arab cite the two last verses that we discussed

21:30 & 41:11

So let us Read the two verses

21:30:

“Do not the Unbelievers see that the heavens and the earth were joined together (as one unit of creation) before we clove them asunder? We made from water every living thing. Will they not then believe?”

41:11

“Moreover He comprehended in His design the sky, and it had been (as) smoke: He said to it and to the earth: "Come ye together, willingly or unwillingly." They said: "We do come (together), in willing obedience."”

Let’s break down the first verse (please read the previous article I already addressed with tafsirs and sources what this verse means) “Do not the Unbelievers see that the heavens and the earth were joined together (as one unit of creation) before we clove them asunder? We made from water every living thing. Will they not then believe?”

If you go by the logic that this was reffering to the big bang (which it’s not as I have proven from part-1) this mentions the heavn and the earth as one then they have been separated, even the masked arab ignorantly elaborate on this @5:52 he says “in chapter 21 verse 30 it says the earth and the heaven where together and then sperated” clearly the masked arab thinks this verse state that the earth and the heaven were one part then separate, Pleas pay attention to this, this is important for the next verse

Issue #2:

@5:58 the masked Arab say “while chapter 41 verse 11 says the earth and the heaven were separate and then joined” I’m not making up this quote, I gave you the timestamp you can go back to his video and listen carefully by yourself

The masked Arab argument:

1-first verse state the heaven and the earth were one then separated

2-second verse state the heaven and the earth were separate then joined

Conclusion: therefore the Quran is in a contradiction

The first verse is obvious and we already discussed it before in Part 1, so let’s briefly break it down

The first verse says the heaven and the earth where joined together then they were separate or exploded (if we accept the masked Arab interpretation) while I already debunked his interpretation in part 1 I think we have a clear picture of what verse 21:30 is saying, now let’s move on to verse 41:11

“Moreover He comprehended in His design the sky, and it had been (as) smoke: He said to it and to the earth: "Come ye together, willingly or unwillingly." They said: "We do come (together), in willing obedience."”

This is Yousif Ali translation, let us read another translation Sahih international

“Then He directed Himself to the heaven while it was smoke and said to it and to the earth, "Come [into being], willingly or by compulsion." They said, "We have come willingly."”

Slightly different, here Sahih international state that God command here is to make the heaven and the earth into existence or rather change them since the heaven was already there in the state of smoke

Both translations have the same exact meaning, God was talking or communicating with the heaven and the earth and asked them to come, where is the part that says “they joined together as one”?

Did the masked Arab bump his head on the ground while making this video? at what point does verse 41:11 says the heaven and the earth were joined together as one?

You can’t make this up at all, he didn’t cite a single tafsir not a single source at all and stuck with this poor claim that is based on a strawman fallacy

Never mind let’s continue

And examine what sources say about 41:11

وإن قال لنا قائل: أخبرنا عن استواء الله جل وعز إلى السماء ، كان قبل خلق السماء أم بعده ؟ قيل: بعده ، قيل: بعده ، وقبل أن يسويهن سبع سموات ، كما قال جل ثناؤه: ثم استوى إلى السماء وهي دخان فقال لها وللأرض ائتيا طوعا أو كرها سورة فصلت آية [1]11

Translation:

And if he said to us: he told us about god going to the heaven, was it before the creation of heaven or after it? It was said : after it, it was said: after that and before he turns it to seven heavens like how God said {Moreover He comprehended in His design the sky, and it had been (as) smoke: He said to it and to the earth: "Come ye together, willingly or unwillingly." They said: "We do come (together), in willing obedience}

This doesn’t get more clear, I don’t need to cite tafsirs to show that 41:11 doesn’t say that the heavens and the earth were joined together into one entity like how TMA so idiotic claim, if you are a fan of TMA and still defend him after such blunder then you have to be beyond gullible

Issue #3:

@6:03 the masked arab will stark to make the claim that the first major battle the muslims faught against the pagans was the battle of worse, while this is correct on it’s own you still need to provide sources to prove the claim, even though a lot of us know this is the first major battle but still when you make a claim you need evidence for it, nevermind let us see his argument

“muslims claim their army defeated a far larger army and Muhammad said this was due to a number of angles who came down and help them in battle but how many angles helped the muslims win the battle of worse, if we look at sura al anfal verse 9 it’s 1000 where as sura al’imran verses 123-124 are clear that 3000 angles helped the muslims at worse, some apologist claim that the 3000 angles were sent in the next battle of uhod but that makes no sense since the verses are clearly talking about badir”

Some apologists? How? Are they modern apologists or are they classical scholars of Tafsir?

“but that makes no sense since the verses are clearly talking about badir “

Is it?

Before we dive into the verse let’s break down this argument

Premise one – the verse was talking about  the battle of Bader

Premise two –the verse says that God brought down 1000 angles

Conclusion:

Therefore it’s impossible for the number to change or increase during battle

That is defined as invalid inductive argument

An invalid argument is an argument where not all premises can follow the truth and neither does the conclusion, an inductive argument suggest that the premises should provide strong premise that it will make it unlikely the conclusion to be false

Since we understood how faulty the argument is let us above why it’s not guaranteed conclusion

It’s still possible for God to increase the number during the battle (keep in mind we still didn’t absolve any tafsir yet or the other verse) so the conclusion of TMA argument falls apart

Let’s find out

Verse 8:9

{ Remember ye implored the assistance of your Lord, and He answered you: "I will assist you with a thousand of the angels, ranks on ranks."}

According to Tafsir Al-Jalalain

اذكر { إذ تستغيثون ربَّكم } تطلبون منه الغوث بالنصر عليهم { فاستجاب لكم أني } أي بأني { مُمدُّكم } معينكم { بألف من الملائكة مردفين } متتابعين يردف بعضهم بعضا وعدهم بها أوَّلا ثم صارت ثلاثة آلاف ثم خمسة كما في آل عمران وقرئ بآلُف كأفُلس جمع.

Translation:

He says { Remember ye implored the assistance of your Lord} you ask him to victory in battle { and He answered you} meaning { I will assist you} providing { thousand of the angels, ranks on ranks} following one after another increasing first by thousand then it reached three thousand then five thousand like in Al-Imran

The key word here is مردفين in the verse, what does this word mean? This is the Achilles' heel of TMA argument, this word will destroy his argument without the need for any Tafsir at all

What does this word mean you ask?

According to the most authentic Arabic to Arabic dictionary Lisan Al Arab, there are several meanings to this word, all have the same connotation

مُتقدِّم: متقدمين على صفوف الجيش ليُلْقوا الرعب في قلوب الأعداء

Translation:

Marching: meaning Marching toward the enemy ranks to strike terror into their hearts

Here is a more precise meaning as listen al Arab mentioned verse 8:9 directly

مُتبِعا بعضهم بعضا آخر منهم

سورة: الانفال ، آية رقم: 9

Translation:

Following one after another as in Sura al Anfal verse 9 (8:9)

Following one after another? If the angles all appeared as 1000 numbers at ones why would God say that they are following one after another?

I don’t even need to cite a single

Let’s take a look at the current best translation of the Quran, Oxford Classic

{ When you begged your Lord for help, He answered you, ‘I will reinforce you with a thousand angels in succession}

This is how Oxford translate the text as well, “in succession” that doesn’t suggest a fixed number like the masked Arab claim

I didn’t need a tafsir at all, just dictionaries and I already refuted his claim

Now let’s take a look at the second verse

3:123-125

{ Allah had helped you at Badr, when ye were a contemptible little force; then fear Allah; thus May ye show your gratitude., Remember thou saidst to the Faithful: "Is it not enough for you that Allah should help you with three thousand angels (especially) sent down?, "Yea, - if ye remain firm, and act aright, even if the enemy should rush here on you in hot haste, your Lord would help you with five thousand angels Making a terrific onslaught. }

The first verse makes a reference to 8:9, when it says that Allah has (already) helped the Muslims at worse, already is a reference to the thousand angles that were sent down first, either the masked Arab is too foolish not to notice this or his audience is too gullible not to fact check him

Even after verse 124 the Quran mention directly 5000 angles, is that also a contradiction given the direct connection between 124 and 125

Tafsir Al Jalalain also mention this

But let’s check other sources of tafsir

حدثني سليمان بن عبد الجبار قال ، حدثنا محمد بن الصلت قال ، حدثنا أبو كدينة ، عن قابوس ، عن أبيه ، عن ابن عباس : ( ممدكم بألف من الملائكة مردفين ) ، قال: وراء كل ملك ملك.[2]

Translation:

Sulayman bin Abduljabar told us, Muhammad bin alsalt told us, Abu Kadina told us, from abuse from his father through Ibn Abbas: { I will assist you with a thousand of the angels, ranks on ranks} said: means behind every angle another comes

As you can see, Tabari cites this verse in indication of verses 3:124-125, meaning they are related, one-time god, sends 1000 angles one at a time until it reached 5000

ومعنى قوله : ( تستغيثون ربكم ) ، تستجيرون به من عدوكم ، وتدعونه للنصر عليهم " فاستجاب لكم " فأجاب دعاءكم ، بأني ممدكم بألف من الملائكة يردف بعضهم بعضا ، ويتلو بعضهم بعضا.

Translate:

Meaning of { Remember ye implored the assistance of your Lord} you ask him for aiding you over your enemies, and asking him to be victorious { I will assist you} he answered your call by lending a thousand angles one after another, one follows another

It should be clear now that 8:9 and 3:124-125 are not contradicting but rather each verse talk about a continues event in the battle, first god sent 1000 angles then 3000 then 5000 one after another

Not that god sent 1000 angles at ones and never aided his believers during the battle again

Issue #4:

@6:54 the mask Arab once again misunderstood and strawmanned two verses by the following quote “now how long is judgment day, will it’s either 50000 years by our account or 1000 years by our accounts it depends really on which verse you are reading, some apologists claim this duration change depending on how good you are but nothing suggests that in the text of the Quran and it seems to be a poor attempt at making sense of the discrepancy”

That is the full text of his claim, so apparently the masked Arab thinks both the verses state the duration of punishment in the judgment day, later on, he claims some apologists say this depends on how good you are

Again not a single citation of a tafsir or a single source was mentioned, let alone his accusations against the apologists

Let’s see the verses

32:5

{ He runs everything, from the heavens to the earth, and everything will ascend to Him in the end, on a Day that will measure a thousand years in your reckoning}

(Oxford Classic Translation

{ He rules (all) affairs from the heavens to the earth: in the end will (all affairs) go up to Him, on a Day, space whereof will be (as) a thousand years of your reckoning.}
Yusuf Ali Translation

So without looking at any tafsir the first verse clearly state that God Changes rules and run everything from the heavens to the earth in a day that is worth 1000 days in our account

But nevertheless we need to establish if this is the only possible interpretation

أَيْ يَتَنَزَّلُ أَمْرُهُ مِنْ أَعْلَى السَّمَاوَاتِ ، إِلَى أَقْصَى تُخُومِ الْأَرْضِ السَّابِعَةِ ، وَتُرْفَعُ الْأَعْمَالُ إِلَى دِيوَانِهَا فَوْقَ سَمَاءِ الدُّنْيَا ، وَمَسَافَةُ مَا بَينهَا وَبَيْنَ الْأَرْضِ : مَسِيرَةُ خَمْسِمِائَةِ سَنَةٍ ، وَسُمْكُ السَّمَاءِ خَمْسُمِائَةِ سَنَةٍ .

وَقَالَ مُجَاهِدٌ وَقَتَادَةُ وَالضَّحَّاكُ: النُّزُولُ مِنَ الْمَلَكِ فِي مَسِيرَةِ خَمْسِمائَةِ عَامٍ ، وَصُعُودُهُ فِي مَسِيرَةِ خَمْسِمِائَةِ عَامٍ، وَلَكِنَّهُ يَقْطَعُهَا فِي طَرْفَةِ عَيْنٍ ".[3]

Translation:

Meaning how he manages his orders from above the heavens to the bottom of the seven earths, and deads are uplifted to the heavens and the distance between it and earth is 50000 years and the heavens thickness is 500 years

Mujahid also said and qutada and Thahik: the descendants of kingdom is at distance of 500 years, and ascension is 500 years but he passes it in blink of an eye

Here ibn Kathir explains the difference between 1000 years and 50000 years

قوله تعالى: ثم يعرج إليه قال يحيى بن سلام: هو جبريل يصعد إلى السماء بعد نزوله بالوحي. النقاش: هو الملك الذي يدبر الأمر من السماء إلى الأرض.[4]

Translation:

What God said “then it will ascend to Him” meaning ascending to him Yahya bin salam: that is Gabrial when he ascends to the heavens after he brought the Wahi down, discussion: he is the king who manages order from heaven to earth

جملة ( يدبر الأمر ) في موضع الحال من اسم الجلالة في قوله تعالى الله الذي خلق السماوات والأرض ، أي خلق تلك الخلائق مدبرا أمرها[5]

Translation:

The word (he He arranges) in condition from position of the name of majesty in God's words who created the heavens and the earth, meaning he created these bodies and he manages them

Oxford classic makes it even easier to understand, we are already seeing holes in the masked Arab arguments without even checking any tafsir at all but let’s check the other verse

Quran 70:4

{ The angels and the spirit ascend unto him in a Day the measure whereof is (as) fifty thousand years}

Yusuf Ali Translation

{ by which the angels and the Spirit ascend to Him, on a Day whose length is fifty thousand years.}

Oxford classic Translation

As you can see, barely by just reading the translation, verse 32:5 refers to how God manages the heavens and the earth in a day that is worth thousand years of our account

Verse 70:4, however, talks about the punishment duration and judgment day duration

Two completely defferent concepts

حدثنا ابن حميد ، قال : ثنا حكام بن سلم ، عن عمرو بن معروف ، عن ليث ، عن مجاهد ( في يوم كان مقداره خمسين ألف سنة ) قال : منتهى أمره من أسفل الأرضين إلى منتهى أمره من فوق السماوات مقدار خمسين ألف سنة[6]

Translation:

Ibn Hamid Told us, Hakim Bin Salm told us, from Umro bin Ma’ruf told us, from Laith, from Mujahid (in a day that is equivalent to fifty thousand years) said : in the end of gods angles come from earth until reaching what is above the heavens can reach in an account of fifty thousand years from our account

ذكر جل وعلا في هذه الآية الكريمة أنه يدبر الأمر من السماء إلى الأرض ، وأنه يعرج إليه في يوم كان مقداره ألف سنة.[7]

Translation:

What his majesty said in this verse that he manage the orders between heavens and earth, and matters reach him in a day that is like a thousand years

And as a final nail in coffin

وقد استشكل جماعة الجمع بين هذه الآية وبين قوله - سبحانه - : تعرج الملائكة والروح إليه في يوم كان مقداره خمسين ألف سنة [ المعارج : 4 ] .

فقيل: في الجواب إن يوم القيامة مقداره ألف سنة من أيام الدنيا ، ولكنه باعتبار صعوبته وشدة أهواله على الكفار كخمسين ألف سنة ، والعرب تصف كثيرا يوم المكروه بالطول كما[8]

Translation:

And group of people got confused regarding this verse and the verse that says { The angels and the Spirit will ascend to Him during a Day the extent of which is fifty thousand years.} (70:4) and it was said in an answer that the day of judgment duration is like a thousand year from our account but given how painful and harsh it’s for the infidels it will be as 50000 years, and Arabs were known to describe the day with length and exaggeration

So another interpretation here suggests that this is referring to how souls and angles reaching heaven or afterlife in a matter of fifty thousand years of what we count.

It should be clear for now that 32:5 is referring to god managing the affairs of the universe, 70:4 is referring to duration of punishment in hellfire, nevertheless let’s continue with it

In conclusion, first verse refers to management of heavenly orders in a matter of thousand years

The second one deals with either the duration of afterlife punishment or the ascension of angles

In any case, none of the verses given above show any indication of contradiction at all even if we count the second interpretation

Issue #5:

@7:14 the masked Arab says “I won’t get into grammatical errors here as this video is in the English language, but a glaring historical error comes in the disruption of Jesus mother marry the author of the Quran clearly mixes up the well known marry with the Mariam who allegardly lived hundreds of years before her, mariam is mentioned in the bible as a sister of aron and moses the book of Exodus 15:20 clearly says that miriam is the sister of arron, she also is mentioned as daughter of Imran and this is mentioned in 1 chronicles 6:3, now the Quran mentions the virgin mary with the exactly same relations as miriam that is just way too much of a coincidence and extremely strong evidence that the Quran’s Author made an error after mistaking mary and miriam as the same person we see in sura al tahrim 66:12 mary is referred to as daughter of Imran whilst in Sura Mariam 19:28 she is referring to as sister or aron, the author has clearly mistaken miriam for mary in the bible and presented them as the same person in the quran”

Now let’s pack this up shall we, did the Quran Really Confuse Mary with Mariam, I will point out now a Glairing error in the masked Arab Quote if you noticed I made an underline and bold text under “sura Mariam” as part of his quote, why did I highlight this? Because it exposes his dishonesty even in his quote, his own quote destroys the foundation of his argument, because believe it or not, Mariam in Arabic can be spelled either mary or Mariam, let us see the Arabic word for Mariam in the verses in question, then later check why I highlighted this part of his quote

66:12

{ And Mary the daughter of 'Imran, who guarded her chastity; and We breathed into (her body) of Our spirit, and she testified to the truth of the words of her Lord and of His Revelations and was one of the devout (servants).}

19:28

{"O sister of Aaron! Thy father was not a man of evil, nor thy mother a woman unchaste!"}

Note the Arabic word

This part of the verse is translated to English into Mary rather than Maryam or Mariam, but as a sidetrack let’s check how the Bible distinguish in Arabic letters between Mary the sister of Aaron and Mary the mother of Jesus

For Exudos 15:20 we read In Arabic the following biblical verses using New International Version Translation (I will provide the website for translation verification)

“20 وَأمسَكَتْ مَريَمُ النَّبِيَّةُ، أُختُ هارُونَ، بِالدُّفِّ فِي يَدِها، وَخَرَجَتْ كُلُّ النِّساءِ خَلفَها بِالدُّفُوفِ وَالرَّقصِ.”[9]

As you can see, exudes 20 also gives Mariam the sister of Aaron the same Arabic name as the Quran gives allegedly to mary the sister of Aaron, both words are identical in naming

Let’s check 1 Chronicles 6:3

“3 أبْناءُ عَمْرامَ هُمْ هارُونُ وَمُوسَى وَمَرْيَمُ”[10]

Here again, we see the same word Mariam (mary according to the Quranic Translation perpetrated by the masked Arab)

You can use Transliteration in http://legacy.quran.com website to see how the word Mariam is transliterated in the Quran, now does all Quranic translation gives this the word mary alone? No

The Muhsin Khan, Shakir and Dr. Ghali Translations Give it the name Maryam or Mariam, rather than Mary

Now let’s change this and see the mary the bible describe as Jesus Mother, first in English

Matthew 1:16

“16 and Jacob the father of Joseph, the husband of Mary, and Mary was the mother of Jesus who is called the Messiah.”[11]

Let’s change the translation to Arabic and see if it remain the same or change under different word for mary

“16 يَعْقُوبُ أبُو يُوسُفَ، زَوجِ مَرْيَمَ.

وَمَرْيَمُ هِيَ أُمُّ يَسُوعَ الَّذِي يُدْعَى «المَسِيحَ.»”[12]

As you can see, both مريم  in exodus and chronicles is the same here ins Mathew, the exact same word is also in the Quran, but here it’s called Mary in the Bible rather than mary as you might think

So in conclusion, the Bible gives two verses for the word Mariam in Arabic but with the name Mariam in English, but then switch to Mary when citing Matthew

This tells us that you need to understand Arabic to investigate and criticise the Quran more properly

Now, what do scholars think regarding this? (we will come back later to the masked Arab quote that destroys his argument)

If we check Wikipedia for the name Maryam the make the following statement

“A Judeo-Aramaic variant of this name, Maryām (Μαριάμ) is recorded in the New Testament as the name of several women, including Mary, mother of Jesus and Mary Magdalene. Variants of this name include Latin Maria, whence French Marie and English Mary..”[13]

“[Mary], mother of the [Jesus] of the New Testament, bore a Judeo-Aramaic variant of this name, Maryām (מרים). In the New Testament of the Bible, written in Greek, her name is transliterated Mariam (Μαριάμ) or Maria. Several other women in the New Testament, including St. Mary Magdalene, are called by the same name.”[14]

“Because of Mary's great religious significance, variants of her name are often given to girl children in both the Western and Arab worlds. In the Quran, Mary's name assumed the Arabic form Maryam (مريم), which has also passed into other languages. The Greek variant Maria passed into Latin and from thence into many modern European languages.”[15]

This is Wikipedia, so take it with grain of salt

Also, check this website

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Maryam_(name)

Islamic Awareness also Did an article regarding this issue

http://www.islamic-awareness.org/Quran/Contrad/External/mary.html

the following comes from article titles

MISCONCEPTION AGAINST THE PROPHET AND THE QUR’ĀN IN ORIENTALIST LITERATURE By Nusairah Binti Ramli

Abdullah adds that Aaron was the brother of Moses who was the first in the line of  Israelite priesthood.  Mary and  Elisabeth came from a  priestly family.  Therefore,  they  were  called “sisters of Aaron” or “daughters of Imran”[16]

Muhammad Asad8translates this verse as, “O sister of Aaron! Thy father was not a wicked man, nor was thy mother a loose woman!”. Muhammad Asad further explains that in ancient semantic usage,  a 1448person’s name was linked to the renowned ancestor or founder of the tribal line.  Since  Mary belonged to a priestly caste and descended from Aaron, the brother of Moses, she was called “sister of Aaron” which is the same for her cousin  Elisabeth,  the wife of  Zachariah. Apart from that

Ibn Kathīr9explains the verse with a slight difference in the usage of terminology such as “O one resembling Harun (Aaron) in worship, your father was not a man who used to commit adultery, nor your mother was an unchaste woman”; he strengthens the translation by quoting a tradition narrated by Alī bin Abī Tālib and Al-Suddi where both said, “It was said to her” referring to the brother of Musa because she was  his  descendant. This is similar to the saying  “O brother of Tamīmī,” to one who was from the Tamīmī tribe and “O brother of Muḍar” to one who was from the Muḍari tribe. It has been said that she was related to the righteous man among them whose name was Harūn and she was comparable to him in her abstinence and worship.[17]

The following is from The Qur'an and Its Biblical Subtext By Gabriel Said Reynolds

This is more prominent among Scholars of Tafsir[18]

Tafsir Muqatil insist and state that this means that sister of Aaron in the Quran means she only belongs to the descendants of Aaron[19]

Tabari gives a detailed explanation of mary ancestors giving her mother Hanna bint Faqudah bint Qatil and her father as Imran bin Yashham[20]

The same goes for when someone calls a member of the tribe of Tamim “oh brother Tamim” or someone from tribe of Mudar “o brother of mudra”[21]

(New Testament and Christian Apocrypha: Collected Studies II By François Bovon) There have been Jewish texts in late antiquity in the middle ages that referred to virgin Mary with Mary Magdalene[22] Mariam is the Hebrew Name[23]

Also, it has been described that her naming is a phrase for her immortality[24]

As she was also identified as sister of Aaron in Quranic usage[25]

The masked Arab Destroys his own argument using his own Quote:

Now since we established why the Quran referred to her as such meaning, and how the bible used the Arabic words in conjunction with the English text, it’s time to see what I meant by the masked Arab contradicting his own quote to his own argument, let’s read again what he said

“whilst in Sura Mariam 19:28 she is referring to as sister or Aaron”

Note how he referred to Sura 19 as “Mariam” if we check the Arabic text of the Sura Name we see it as shockingly

As you can see above in the black rectangles

مريم

Is translated to Maryam in English

Now the masked arab reffered to this verse in his quote “Sura Mariam” (you can go and Check the timestamp yourselves) as Mariam instead of his alleged Mary (in the Quranic verses) why did he refer to the Quranic Sura name as Mariam instead of the accused claim of Mary as the name instead?, when he can clearly see the arabic text using the arabic word mariam he refers to the common english translations that say Mary to make his allegation, But when he refers to the Sura Name Instead he used the opposite name, Mariam

Either it’s a slip in tongue or he is just foolish enough not to notice it

In Conclusion, Mary in the Quran or rather Mariam as Arabic text puts it is rather a reference to her from tribal/descendant heritage rather than just some quranic confusion

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[1] Jami’ Al Bayan ‘An Tawil Ay Quran (Tabari), Hadith Number 458

[2] Tasir Tabari vol.13 page.412-413

[3] Tafsir Ibn Kathir page.359 vol.6

[4] Tafsir Qurtubi vol.14 page.81

[5] Tahrir Wa Altanwir vol.22 page.212

[6] Tafsir Tabari vol.23 page.602

[7] Athwa Al Bayan fi Ethah Al-Quran BilQuran vol.6 page.183

[8] Fatih Al-Qadir Al-Jami’ Bayn Fani Al-Riwaia wa Al-Diraya vol.1 page.1148

[9] https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Exodus+15&version=ERV-AR

[10] https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=%EF%BA%83%EF%BA%A7%EF%BA%92%EF%BA%8E%EF%BA%AD%20%EF%BA%8D%EF%BB%B7%EF%BB%B3%EF%BA%8E%EF%BB%A1%20%EF%BA%8D%EF%BB%B7+6&version=ERV-AR

[11] https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Matthew+1:16&version=NIV

[12] https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Matthew+1:16&version=ERV-AR

[13] https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Miriam_(given_name)

[14] ibid

[15] ibid

[16] Abdulla Isma'il ibn 'Umar, TafsīrIbn Kathir (abridged),(Riyadh, Saudi Arabia : Darussalam, 2000), Vol 6, 252. h Yusuf Ali, The Meaning of the Holy Qur’ān page.750.

[17]

[18] The Qur'an and Its Biblical Subtext

By Gabriel Said Reynolds page.132

[19] Tafsir Muqatil Ibn Sulaiman vol.2 page.625-626

[20] The Qur'an and Its Biblical Subtext By Gabriel Said Reynolds page.132

[21] Tabari 16:77

[22] R.Travers Herford Chrisitanity in Talmud and midrasb 355, 258, pseudo Cyril of Jerusalem homily on dormition

[23] Scott C.Layton arcbaic Features of Canaanite Personal Names in the Hebrew Bible page.183-186

[24] Patrica Crone Muslim-Christian Polemics across the Mediterranean…..page.157 Footnote: Al Khazraji Maqmi page.138

[25] The Qurʾānic Pagans and Related Matters: Collected Studies in ..., Volume 1 By Patricia Crone Page.296