Why The Masked Arab is Masked, Falsehood makes one Bashful, 7 vulgar reasons why TMA left Islam part-3 (A) The Prophet Muhammad Attitudes (did the prophet Allow Rape?)

Introduction:

Continuing from our series on his videos regarding the 7 reasons why he left Islam, today we will tackle the issues raised regarding the Prophet Muhammad ﷺ and his life, with that being said let us proceed

Note regarding the channel: inshallah when finished with his video that we are tackling this time I shall start working on my channel, the theme will be text on the screen, no voice narration, that will come later.

all sources that are displayed in the video will be sourced in the description, if I had to if youtube won’t allow word limits, I will use this blog as a resource for sources

I will Try and get this blog out as fast as possible to go to my channel as the next source for refutations when I'm done with his video, as you know this video will be dedicated to responding to the accusations TMA brought regarding the life and actions of the prophet Muhammad ﷺ, any allegation that was already refuted in previous articles will not be discussed here, I will rather just leave a link to my article addressing the issue, moving on let us proceed.

Issue #1

@8:45 the masked Arab start with the well-known allegation of the prophet marriage to Aisha (RA)

The masked arab start this section by the following Quote “but there is no doubt if you read the quran, Hadith and his sira, which is his Bioghraphy the man was brutal, to say the least, and no where near the absulot modle of perfection I was taught he was a muslim, the most well-known controversy involving him was for his marriage to his six-year-old girl before consummating the marriage at nine, apologists in this generation know this stand against their values and often try and wriggle out of it by changing the age of Aisha based on indirect calculations emanating from much weaker hadiths, while others claim girls mature faster in hot climates, but I’m not here to cite aisha’s marriage and instade we will focus on other aspects”

Let’s us address the elephant in the room first, he split the apologists into two categories, ones make the argument that she is much older but claims that it’s based on weak hadiths, now I don’t advocate for this argument at all (I used to) but if they are weak prove it, show the sources they use and prove that they are weak, if you are too intellectually lazy to put effort into your videos then don’t expect to be taken seriously by Muslims

As for the second category, note how he didn’t bother to refute it, and instead decided to run away like a coward without actually addressing the response

Now this claim is actually factually correct, this is a historical fact no one can’t deny it, I've already explained how it’s both illogical and scientifically impossible for Muhammad ﷺ to be considered pedophile in my article[1]

But let us see, how puberty was viewed in history, in fact, each society has its own way of marking puberty that differentiates it from others

Peter N Stearns writes in Childhood in World History:

“almost all societies have some way to mark of the age or period in which puberty is usually achieved…the average age of puberty varies greatly from one society to the next (it’s lower in hot climates, and also where food is abundant)  by the same token it can be changed over time; puberty today, in the united states and western Europe occurs four years earlier (or more) than it did on average 200 years ago, some societies view people as adults, or virtually so, when they have completed puberty. In many societies marriage at the age of puberty, particularly for girls, is quite common. Other societies, like our own in contemporary west, still mark off an extended period of childhood.  Some societies have elaborate rituals around puberty; others, like our own (aside from religious confirmation marks), tend to downplay the ceremonial aspects, partly perhaps because they worry about the consequences of puberty for people still regarded as children. The variations and potential changes over time are striking”[2]

genetic changes have been noted in Harvard and Cambridge articles as an indication of maturity evolving in history

While the academic article below deals heavily with the effects of genetics makeup in puberty, please feel free to skip it if you don’t want to read some complex scientific terms, it and describes early puberty (which is not what we are addressing) the point here is withered or not there has been genetic changes and makeups to determine the timing of the onset, it does tell us that puberty had no fixed number, and was changing in time

 “A clearer relationship can be drawn between the pace of childhood growth and the timing of puberty. Within populations, children of both sexes who are taller and heavier in middle childhood are more likely to enter puberty earlier. Also, the secular trend toward faster childhood growth through time has been associated with a simultaneous trend toward earlier puberty in both sexes (Ellison1982; Eveleth and Tanner 1991; Cole 2000; Karlberg 2002)..”[3]

These are all scientific facts, if the apologists are claiming that puberty has changed drastically in time, then the masked Arab is on the wrong side of history to completely disagree with such fact, almost all historians and almost all professors of history agree to such fact, you only notice this claim among polemicists like the masked Arab

Nevertheless, my article shall be sufficient enough to deal with the issue, I even dedicated 2 articles regarding pedophilia, that explain why Muhammad ﷺ can’t be considered a pedophile

Issue #2:

@09:09 the masked arab says “Muhammad was a violent man who leads atleast 30 raids against his opponents and encouraged banditry against trade caravans where his men looted goods and killed travelling merchants, the attacks were unprovoked the vast majority of the time, in some raids muslims attacked villages killing the men and enslaving women and children in one instance battle of Autas muslims captured women as sex slaves and felt it was immoral to have sex with them as they were already marries, so then Muhammad reveals a quranic verse to tell them that having sex with married women is banned with the exception if that married woman is actually your slave, apologetics have a difficult time trying to defend this verse as is clear in the quran and it’s across pretty much all Islamic sources sunni and shia, this is found in sura al-nisa which is chapter 4 and verses 23 and 24, at the beginning of verse 24 we see it says { And [also prohibited to you are all] married women except those your right hands possess} so we can clearly see that Muhammad and the Quran encouraged muslim soldiers to rape their female captives even if they were married}

Here I shall provide detailed analysis of this verse, from who were captured to what happened to them

Ok now that is an insane misquotation, let us read the two verses that he called out (note that he didn’t read verse 23)

4:23:

{Prohibited to you [for marriage] are your mothers, your daughters, your sisters, your father's sisters, your mother's sisters, your brother's daughters, your sister's daughters, your [milk] mothers who nursed you, your sisters through nursing, your wives' mothers, and your step-daughters under your guardianship [born] of your wives unto whom you have gone in. But if you have not gone in unto them, there is no sin upon you. And [also prohibited are] the wives of your sons who are from your [own] loins, and that you take [in marriage] two sisters simultaneously, except for what has already occurred. Indeed, Allah is ever Forgiving and Merciful. And [also prohibited to you are all] married women except those your right hands possess. [This is] the decree of Allah upon you. And lawful to you are [all others] beyond these, [provided] that you seek them [in marriage] with [gifts from] your property, desiring chastity, not unlawful sexual intercourse. So for whatever you enjoy [of marriage] from them, give them their due compensation as an obligation. And there is no blame upon you for what you mutually agree to beyond the obligation. Indeed, Allah is ever Knowing and Wise.}

As you can see, the first verse in context, it’s talking about marriage, how the hell did the masked Arab with his unbound dishonesty twist this verse to talk about sex, let alone not showing the context that he associated it with it is beyond me, is this the bright night of ex-Muslims?, apologists have no difficulty here at all, even when I was an atheist I never used this verse and associate it with sexual intercourse

While we do have context to the verse, as the masked Arab cited, but he needs to provide his claims with evidence even when we know about them, given the fact not everyone knows about the story behind this verse

Now large portions will come below, it will deal with what this verse was all about, then, later on, we will deal with the shubha (allegation) that Islam allows rape in short burst of sources, we shall explore the stages when which what sexual relations are allowed, then we shall see if these captives were engaged directly in sexual intercourse without marriage (zina) or were they handed over in marriage? And if they were handed over in marriage was it enforced nonconsensual marriage? We shall explore the issues in short details even as of now the article is already long enough

While to play the devil’s advocate the first word mentioned in verse 4:23 ([for marriage]) is not part of the verse Arabic text, but we shall address it in the tafsir section

Al-Nawawi said in the explination of Sahih Muslim:

“اعلم أن مذهب الشافعي ومن قال بقوله من العلماء أن المسبية من عبدة الأوثان وغيرهم من الكفار الذين لا كتاب لهم لا يحل وطؤها بملك اليمين حتى تسلم، فما دامت على دينها فهي محرمة، وهؤلاء المسبيات كن من مشركي العرب عبدة الأوثان، فيؤول هذا الحديث وشبهه على أنهن أسلمن، وهذا التأويل لا بد منه”[4]

Translation:

I know from the madhab of Shafi’I and what the majority of scholars say regarding the right hand possess who are the polytheists and worshipers of the stones and others are Kufar infidels who had no book, and having sex with them is prohibited until they are muslims, if she remained on her religion then she is prohibited to have sex with, and those captives were among the polytheises (reffering to 4:24) who worshiped the stones, so interpreted from this hadith is that they might have converted to islam, and that is an interpretation that is the most probable one

“أن من حرم نكاح حرائرهم من المجوسيات وسائر الكوافر سوى أهل الكتاب لا يباح وطء الإماء منهن بملك اليمين في قول أكثر أهل العلم، منهم: مرة الهمذاني والزهري وسعيد بن جبير والأوزاعي والثوري وأبو حنيفة ومالك والشافعي ، وقال ابن عبد البر على هذا جماعة فقهاء الأمصار وجمهور العلماء وما خالفه فشذوذ.”[5]

Translation:

 who prohibited the marriage of free and majority of Kufar except for people of the book, it’s not allowed to have sex with captives as in the opinion of the majority of people of knowledge among them: Al-Hamthani, Al-Zuhri, Sa’id bin Jarir, Al-Awzai, Al-Thuri, Abu Hanifa, and Al-Shafi’I, and Ibn Abd Al-bir said regarding this is the majority of Fuqaha and majority of scholars, and those who disagreed are mere abnormality

If Muslims and the prophet all that they cared about is sexual pleasure, then please for any nonmuslim reading this, answer this question:

Why didn’t the prophet let alone the scholars allowed having sex with the polytheists?, here Muslims will have sexual pleasure with two types of women, the Muslims and non muslims if they truly seek pleasure, why didn’t the prophet and the scholars allow sex with polytheists if they are such sexual predators as TMA and his fans claim?

Now that we understand that this verse is talking about marriage and not sex, Let’s look at what scholars said :

According to Ibn Kathir, the women you have sexual intercourse with must be set free.

"قال عمر بن عبد البر عن اياس بن عمار, سألت علي ابن ابي طالب فقلت: أن لي أختين مما ملكت يميني أتخذت أحدهما سرية فولدت لي أولاد ثم رغبت في الأخرى فما أصنع؟ فقال علي رضي الله عنه. تعتق التي كنت تطأ ثم تطأ الأخرى..."[6]

Translation:

Umar bin abid al bir said from Ayas bin Amar, I asked Ali bin Abi Talib so I said: I had two sisters of my right hand possess (sister here means sister in Islam) I took one of them as captives so she gave me a boy, then I desired the other one so what do I do? Ali (blessings of God be upon him) said: you must set free the one you had sex with, then the other one

While Ibn Kathir later on did say that sexual intercourse is permitted with them if you check for menstruation (يعيني ألا ملكتموهن بالسبي فأنه يحل لكم وطؤهن اذا استبرأتموهن  (to make sure that they are not pregnant, he does say this is the opinion of Imam Ahmed bin Abi Sa’id, but let us put that in perspective, and explore the conditions of sexual intercourse, is it permissible to have sexual intercourse with non muslims?

According to a narration from al-Tabari in a Sahih hadith

“حدثني يعقوب بن أبراهيم, قال حدثنا أبن علية عن خالد عن عكرمة عن أبن عباس قال: طلاق الأمة ست: بيعها طلاقها, و عتقها طلاقها وهبتها طلاقها, و براءتها طلاقها, و طلاق زوجها طلاقها"[7]

Translation:

Ya’qub bin Ibrahim told me, said ibn Alia from Khalid from ‘Ukrama from Ibn Abbas said: the divorce of the captive is six: selling her is her divorce, setting her free is her diverse, giving her away is her divorce, he innocence is her divorce, and her husband divorce is her divorce

What is meant above is that a captive goes under six conditions for divorce, one of them the last one is the divorce of her husband makes her divorce, that is exactly what happened to the captives of Awtas, as their mere capture inhibited the contract between their husbands and them.

Furthermore

Does Islam permit Marriage with Polytheist women (including those mentioned in the allegation)?:

"وحرمت عليكم النساء المزوجات فلا يحل لكم التزوج بهن أثناء كونهن مزوجات ألا أمراة ملكتها يمينكم بالسبي.... و هذا قول كثير أهل العلم"[8]

Translation:

It’s prohibited for you the married women so it’s not rightful for you to marry them since they are married, except for your right hand possess…. And that is the opinion of the majority of people of knowledge (scholars)

Continuing on:

"كما قال النووي رحمه الله: و المزوجات حرام على غير أزواجهن ألا ملكتم بالسبي, فأنه يفسخ نكاح زوجها الكافر و تحل لكم اذا انقضى أستبرائوها"[9]

Translation:

As Imam Nawawi said: and the married women are forbidden on men who are not their husbands, except for your right hand possess, this violates her marriage contract with her infidel husband and it’s allowed for you to marry them when their menstruation pass on

This is further reinforced by verse 2:221

{And do not marry polytheistic women until they believe.}

4:3

{And if you fear that you will not deal justly with the orphan girls, then marry those that please you of [other] women, two or three or four. But if you fear that you will not be just, then [marry only] one or those your right hand possesses. That is more suitable that you may not incline [to injustice].}

4:25

{And whoever among you cannot [find] the means to marry free, believing women, then [he may marry] from those whom your right hands possess of believing slave girls. And Allah is most knowing about your faith. You [believers] are of one another. So marry them with the permission of their people and give them their due compensation according to what is acceptable. [They should be] chaste, neither [of] those who commit unlawful intercourse randomly nor those who take [secret] lovers. But once they are sheltered in marriage, if they should commit adultery, then for them is half the punishment for free [unmarried] women. This [allowance] is for him among you who fears sin, but to be patient is better for you. And Allah is Forgiving and Merciful.}

The common denominator here is the concept of Wat’ bill nukah

Meaning sexual intercourse with marriage, the common theme that one might read from some of the readings is that this permit sexual intercourse, but is sexual intercourse without marriage? Are Muslims permitted to have sexual intercourse with female slaves without marrying them?

There is a word for this, it’s سفاح or also known as Zina

Meaning having sexual intercourse with a woman without marrying her

According to Lisan Al-Arab the most authentic Arabic-Arabic dictionary

“وهو أَن تقيم امرأَةٌ مع رجل على فجور من غير تزويج صحيح”[10]

Translation:

It’s for a woman to commit sexual intercourse on privet parts without marriage

And at no point did we see any of the above tradition permit the practice of safah let alone mention it, even when scholars like Imam Nawawi stated that these women were converted then got married, this is evidence that sexual intercourse without marriage (سفاح) was not permitted at all, this practice is not mentioned anywhere even in ibn Kathir commentary that permitted sexual intercourse

So now as we progress we are getting a more clear picture of what verse 24 is talking about, but for the sake of more clarity we will see more scholars opinions

According to Ibn Taymiah in his groundbreaking book Majmu’ alfatawa

"(أو ما ملكت أيمانكم) و أنما يمتنع الوطء بسبب يوجب التحريم, ان تكون محرمة بالرضع, او بالصهر, أو بالشرك و نحو ذالك"[11]

Translation:

{or your right hand possess} it’s not permissible to have sexual intercourse with them based on if they were pregnant, or family related, or polytheist, and so on

Meaning it’s not permissible to have sexual intercourse with her until she convert

But that begs the question, the same question I had before if Muslims are such sexual predators, why not allow to have sex even with polytheists?

Why put so many limits and regulations regarding marriage and sexual intercourse prohibiting them.

Now don’t take my word for it, take the word of The Shaikh of Islam Ibn Taymia in his book majmu’ al-fatawa, one of the greatest scholars in the history of Islam regarding the  issue or marriage and sexual intercourse, he stated the following:

"وقال تعالى (يا أيها الذين آمنوا لا يحل لكم أن ترثوا النساء كرها ولا تعضلوهن لتذهبوا ببعض ما آتيتموهن) فقد ذكر ان تراضي بالمعروف و الأمساك بالمعروف و التسريح بالمعروف, و المعاشرة بالمعروف, و أن لهن و عليهن بالمعروف كما قال : (رزقهن وكسوتهن بالمعروف) , فهذا المذكور في القرأن هو الواجب العدل في جميع ما يتعلق بالنكاح من أمور النكاح و حقوق الزوجين, فكما أن ما يجب للمرأة عليهمن الرزق و الكسوة هو بالمعروف, و هو العرف الذب يعرفه الناس في حالهما نوعا و قدر وصفة......وكذالك يجب عليه من المتعة و العشرة فعليه يبيت عندها, و يطأها بالمعروف, و يختلف ذللك باختلاف حالها و حاله, و هذا أصح القولين في الوطء الواجب انه مقدار المعروف"[12]

Translation:

As god said {O you who have believed, it is not lawful for you to inherit women by compulsion. And do not make difficulties for them in order to take [back] part of what you gave them.} it was mentioned that having a firm and kind relationship and stand firm by kindness and equality, and having intimate relationship with kindness, and for them as it’s on them rights as he said { and their clothing according to what is acceptable} since this is mentioned in the quran it’s obligatory to deal equalily and kindly in all manners of marriage (including sex) and the rights of both spouses, as it’s obligatory to bestow upon the wife of clothing and spending with equality, and this is the equality that people know on both types in quantity and discription……and that is also related to pleasure and sex and intimate relationship , it’s obligoty upon him to give her house, and establish a sexual relation with equity and kindness, this differs according to her situation and his, and that is the most authentic among scholars regarding sexual relation it’s duty that it’s established with fairness”

I’m sorry, but I don’t see any mention of “rape her as long as you desire” above, this is the shaikh of Islam ibn Taymiyyah Granted, this title of Shaikh of Islam is not exclusive to ibn taymia, many scholars like Imam Nawawi (which we mentioned above) ibn Hajar al asqalani, and Ahmed ibn Hanbal and many others shared the same title

So, in short, we established that these women didn’t engage in sexual intercourse without marriage (safih or zina), but rather they converted from polytheism to Islam according to the majority of scholars, from there we need to establish the Hukum or ruling of sexual relations within marriage, and we did so above from Ibn Taymia who was addressing the issue of sexual relations with slaves and captives

Hadiths From the Prophet Prohibiting and preventing Compulsion including rape:

There is also a Hasan Hadith from the prophet punishing a man who forced himself on a woman

“Narrated 'Alqamah bin Wa'il Al-Kindi:

From his father: "A women went out during the time of the Prophet (ﷺ) to go to Salat, but she was caught by a man and he had relations with her, so she screamed and he left. Then a man came across her and she said: 'That man has done this and that to me', then she came across a group of Emigrants (Muhajirin) and she said: 'That man did this and that to me.' They went to get the man she thought had relations with her, and they brought him to her. She said: 'Yes, that's him.' So they brought him to the Messenger of Allah (ﷺ), and when he ordered that he be stoned, the man who had relations with her, said: 'O Messenger of Allah, I am the one who had relations with her.' So he said to her: 'Go, for Allah has forgiven you.' Then he said some nice words to the man (who was brought). And he said to the man who had relations with her: 'Stone him.' Then he said: 'He has repented a repentance that, if the inhabitants of Al-Madinah had repented with, it would have been accepted from them.'"”[13]

Granted this story is mentioned in Sunan Abu Dawood, al Albani said that the word “stone” probably didn’t exist, never the less, not one protested to this source from Jam’ al Tirmidhi

I honestly can’t fathem the overwhelming sources and arguments in Islamic jursipudence against Ikrah Bil zina (compulsory sex) are complety against it, yet I’m so shocked to see not a single instance of rape in Islamic sources have ever been recorded let alone recorded without having the man punished, not to mention the countless sources contesting against it and the quran already addressing it both in 4:19 and 24:33, Yet TMA with all his cowardness and his dishonesty comes with these load words claiming Muhammad or islam allows rape in general, and he couldn’t even come up with a single story of a man raping a woman without getting punished

Another Hadith from the prophet Prohibiting compulsion on all of its Kinds

There are two hadiths with two different mutations regarding the words, but both share the same words

First hadith

“On the authority of Ibn Abbas (may Allah be pleased with him), that the Messenger of Allah (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him) said:

Verily Allah has pardoned [or been lenient with] for me my Ummah: their mistakes, their forgetfulness, and that which they have been forced to do under duress. A Hasan hadeeth related by Ibn Majah, and al-Bayhaqee and others.”[14]

Authentication: Hasan

Second Hadith
“It was narrated from Ibn 'Abbas that the Prophet (ﷺ) said :

"Allah has forgiven my nation for mistakes and forgetfulness, and what they are forced to do."”[15]
authentication: Sahih (authentic)

Now, what does Forgiven my nation for mistakes or pardoned them means? For that we need to see what scholars of interpretation have examined on one of these hadiths

"وقوله (رفع الله عن أمتي الخطأ و النسيان) المراد به: رفع حكمه......وقيل: المراد (به): رفع حكمه الذي هو المؤاخدة.....و قد كان يفهم من قولهم (رفعت عنك الخطأ): المؤاخذة به و العقاب"[16]

Translation:

And what is meant by the prophet “God has forgiven for my nation from mistakes and forgetfulness” meaning: the judgment of these actions and mistakes were left……and it was said: what is meant here is the Hukum judgment which is accountability….. it was also understood from (I pardoned you of your mistake) meaning accountability and punishment

Furthermore a  much more striking explanation:

"حك الخطأ والنسيان والمكره عليه فغير مرفوع فلو أتلف شيئاً خطأ أو ضاعت منه الوديعة نسياناً ضمن. ويستثنى من الاكراه: الاكراه على الزنا والقتل فـلا يباحان بالاكراه"[17]

Translation:

And regarding the mistakes and forgetfulness and what was forced upon and what has been inserted on, if it was corrupted as a mistake or lost due to forgetfulness, and what has been made exceptional Duo to compulsions such as compulsion and forced sex, and forced murder these are not allowed  if they were forced

Conclusion:

I have decided to end the article here, it’s already long enough, I shall address the rest of the issues made by the masked Arab regarding the prophet Muhammad attitude in the next article

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[1] http://azblogtalk.blogspot.com/2016/02/why-masked-arab-is-masked-falsehood.html

[2] Childhood in World History By Peter N Stearns, Professor of History and Provost Introduction page.3

[3] Puberty as a life history transition By Peter T. Ellisona, Meredith W. Reichesa, Heather Shattuck-Faegrea, Alicia Breakeya, Martina Konecnab,Samuel Urlachera& Victoria Wobberaa Department of Human Evolutionary Biology, Harvard University, Cambridge, MA, USA, and bDepartment of Zoology,University of South Bohemia, Budwais, Czech Republic, page.4

[4] Sharih Sahih Muslim 1456 by Imam Nawawi

[5] Al-Maqni By Ibn Qudama Vol.9 Page.552

[6] Tayser Al’Ali Al-Qadir fi Ikhtisar Tafsir Ibn Kathri, by Ibn Kathir vol.1 page.373

[7] Jami’ Ahkam Al-Nisa vol.3 page.112

[8] Ibid page.114

[9] ibid

[10]https://www.almaany.com/ar/dict/ar-ar/%D8%B3%D9%81%D8%A7%D8%AD/?c=%D9%84%D8%B3%D8%A7%D9%86%20%D8%A7%D9%84%D8%B9%D8%B1%D8%A8

[11] Majmu’ Al-Fataw By Shikh of Islam Ibn Taymia vol.32 chap.12 page.117

[12] Ibid page.55

[13] Jami` at-Tirmidhi 1454

[14] Ibn Maja 40 Hadith Nawawi 39

[15] Ibn Maja Vol. 3, Book 10, Hadith 2045

[16] Rawtha Al-Nathar Wa jana Al-Manthar By Muafaq al Din Almaqdisi (imam Ibn Qudama) page.223

[17] Alkutub Al-Arba’in By Imam Nawawi page.80